Business High School
Answers
Answer 1
Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) and session hijacking are two common types of web security attacks that aim to steal user data, exploit user privileges, or damage the user's reputation.
CSRF involves an attacker sending a malicious request from a website to a user's web browser, using the user's session information or authentication credentials.
This can trick the user into performing an unwanted action on a different website, such as making unauthorized transactions or changing their account settings.
Session hijacking is another type of attack in which an attacker gains unauthorized access to a user's session data, by stealing their session ID or cookies.
This allows the attacker to take over the user's session and perform any action on the user's behalf, such as making unauthorized purchases or accessing sensitive information.
To prevent CSRF and session hijacking, web developers can implement several security measures:
1. Use secure coding practices and regularly update software and security patches.
2. Implement proper authentication and session management mechanisms, such as two-factor authentication, strong password policies, and session timeouts.
3. Use secure HTTP headers, such as the CSRF token, to validate user requests and prevent unauthorized access.
4. Implement secure coding practices that do not allow any data from user-controlled sources to directly modify data, especially on behalf of the user.
5. Use HTTPS to encrypt the data in transit to prevent eavesdropping and interception.
6. Conduct regular security audits and penetration testing to identify any potential vulnerabilities and address them proactively.
7. Educate users on the importance of maintaining strong passwords, avoiding phishing scams, and using secure browsing practices to protect their accounts from cyber threats.
By implementing these measures, web developers can mitigate the risk of CSRF and session hijacking attacks and ensure the security of their users' data and information.
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Related Questions
To adequately support the assertions made in a speech, a speaker should ____.
a) provide numerous examples and statistics and very little testimony
b) provide abundant expert testimony and minimal statistical support
c) concentrate, principally, on providing solid statistical data
d) use a variety of good evidence, making clear its credibility
Answers
To adequately support the assertions made in a speech, a speaker should d) use a variety of good evidence, making clear its credibility.
To adequately support the assertions made in a speech, a speaker should use a variety of evidence that supports their claims. This can include examples, statistics, expert testimony, personal experience, and other credible sources of information. The speaker should be careful to ensure that the evidence they present is relevant to their argument and that it is credible, meaning that it comes from reputable sources and is based on sound research or data. By using a variety of good evidence and making clear its credibility, the speaker can build a stronger case for their position and help to persuade their audience.
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The amount of manufacturing overhead recorded on a job cost record for a particular job is found by... A. tracing manufacturing overhead to the job. B. allocating manufacturing overhead to the job. C. either tracing or allocating manufacturing overhead costs (management's choice). D. None of the answers listed are correct.
Answers
The amount of manufacturing overhead recorded on a job cost record for a particular job is found by allocating manufacturing overhead to the job.
This is because manufacturing overhead consists of indirect costs that cannot be directly traced to a specific job or product. Therefore, manufacturing overhead is allocated to jobs based on a predetermined overhead rate that is calculated by dividing the estimated total manufacturing overhead costs by the estimated total amount of the allocation base, such as direct labor hours or machine hours.
The predetermined overhead rate is then used to apply manufacturing overhead to jobs based on their actual usage of the allocation base. This process ensures that the indirect costs of production are properly assigned to the specific jobs or products that caused them, and that the cost of goods sold and ending inventory are accurately recorded in the accounting system.
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what term refers to the way perm tools are arranged around the client's head while wrapping?
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The term that refers to the way perm tools are arranged around the client's head while wrapping is called the wrapping pattern. This pattern can vary depending on the desired outcome and can include techniques such as bricklay, spiral, and straight set.
The wrapping pattern is crucial in determining the final outcome of the perm as it affects the size, shape, and direction of the curls. Proper placement of the perm tools is important to ensure even processing and avoid any uneven results.
A skilled stylist will consider the client's hair type, desired outcome, and the wrapping pattern to achieve a beautiful and long-lasting perm.
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Matt was the marketing manager for a sports team. He made choices based on his own ideas and judgments and rarely accepted advice from his staff. Which style of management below does Matt use?-Contingency approach -Free rein style -Autocratic style -Democratic style
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Option c: He rarely listened to input from his team and typically made decisions based on his own opinions and assessments. Matt uses the autocratic management style described below.
One leader or a small group of leaders at the top hold the power and authority to make decisions without consulting or telling deputies. This management style is known as an autocratic one. An autocratic management style is frequently employed whe.n precise results, prompt action, or close task supervision are required.
Autocratic management style can also be imposed by outside bodies that have a function in the organization5. The democratic, transformative, or laissez-faire leadership styles that give team members more power or autonomy contrast with the autocratic management style. Autocratic management style can have negatives, such as low morale, rebellion, or limited skills development among personnel
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if a drug company wants to persuade skeptical customers to buy a new medicine, the company should consider all of the following strategies except
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The strategies that a drug company should consider to persuade skeptical customers to buy a new medicine may vary depending on the specific context and regulations. However, there are some general principles to keep in mind. The company should not engage in deceptive or unethical practices, such as:
Misrepresentation: Providing false or misleading information about the medicine's effectiveness, side effects, or safety.
Coercion: Using aggressive or manipulative tactics to pressure customers into purchasing the medicine.
Withholding information: Concealing important details or failing to disclose potential risks associated with the medicine.
Discrediting competitors: Spreading false or baseless claims about competing products or companies.
Instead, the company should focus on transparent and evidence-based communication, providing accurate information about the medicine, conducting rigorous clinical trials, seeking regulatory approval, and ensuring that marketing practices comply with relevant laws and regulations. Building trust through scientific credibility, patient testimonials, and endorsem*nts from healthcare professionals can also be effective strategies.
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Copies of the sales order can be used for all of the following except
a. Purchase order
b. Credit authorization
c. Shipping notice
d. Packing slip
Answers
The answer is a.purchase order.a sales order is a document used in the sales process to request goods or services from a vendor.
it contains important details such as the quantity and price of the items, shipping address, and payment terms. copies of the sales order can be used for various purposes, but they are not typically used for generating a purchase order, as the purchase order is usually created by the buyer to request the goods or services from the vendor. copies of the sales order can be used for generating credit authorizations, shipping notices, and packing slips. the credit authorization verifies that the customer has sufficient funds or credit to make the purchase. the shipping notice is sent to the customer to inform them that the items have been shipped and the expected delivery date. the packing slip is included in the shipment to provide a list of the items and quantities included in the shipment.
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The best predictor of major expenditures that do not have status or symbolic value is ________.
Select one: a. education b. social class and income c. occupation d. social class e. income
Answers
The best predictor of major expenditures that do not have status or symbolic value is income.
While social class and occupation may also be correlated with spending patterns, income is the most direct predictor of a person's ability to make major expenditures.
People with higher incomes are generally able to spend more on non-status or non-symbolic items, such as home improvements, cars, and vacations, than people with lower incomes.
Education may also be related to spending patterns, as it can affect a person's income level and financial literacy, but income is a more direct and powerful predictor of spending behavior.
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if sellers want to sell more products than buyers are willing to purchase, we know that:
a. the market price is less than the equilibrium price
b. quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied
c. the market price is greater than the equilibrium price
d. the demand curve will likely increase
Answers
b. Quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied. This is because when sellers want to sell more products than buyers are willing to purchase, there is a surplus in the market, resulting in excess supply.
This means that the quantity of the product supplied by the sellers is greater than the quantity demanded by the buyers, leading to a situation where sellers are unable to sell all of their products.
In a market where sellers want to sell more products than buyers are willing to purchase, there is excess supply or a surplus in the market. This is because the quantity of the product supplied by the sellers exceeds the quantity demanded by the buyers. As a result, sellers are unable to sell all of their products at the prevailing market price, which is likely to be below the equilibrium price.
The equilibrium price is the price at which the quantity of a product demanded by buyers is equal to the quantity of the product supplied by sellers. When there is a surplus in the market, the market price falls below the equilibrium price as sellers try to lower their prices to attract buyers. This leads to a situation where the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied, which is the main answer to your question.
The demand curve is unlikely to increase in this situation as the excess supply in the market indicates that buyers are not willing to purchase more of the product at the prevailing market price. Instead, sellers may have to adjust their prices or find other ways to increase demand for their products, such as through marketing or product differentiation, in order to sell more of their products.
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one could say that until recently, the slogan of the most industrialized nations has been
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One could say that until recently, the slogan of the most industrialized nations has been "growth at all costs."
For decades, these nations have pursued economic growth and industrialization as the primary goal of their policies. However, this approach has come under increasing scrutiny in recent years, as concerns about climate change and environmental degradation have grown. Many now argue that this focus on growth has come at too great a cost to the planet, and that it is time to shift to a more sustainable and equitable model of development.
This means prioritizing things like renewable energy, conservation, and social justice, rather than simply maximizing economic output. While this shift is still in its early stages, there are signs that it is gaining momentum, with countries like Germany and Denmark leading the way in developing sustainable, low-carbon economies. Ultimately, the challenge for the most industrialized nations will be to find a way to balance economic growth with environmental and social responsibility, in order to create a more just and sustainable world for all.
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Which of the following is not a valid instrument for transferring property from a seller to a buyer?
a. Quitclaim deed
b. General warranty deed
c. Deed of release
d. Special warranty deed
Answers
Deed of release is not a valid instrument for transferring property from a seller to a buyer. It is a document that releases a party from a claim or obligation, but it does not transfer property ownership. The other options (a. Quitclaim deed, b. General warranty deed, and d.
Special warranty deed) are valid instruments for transferring property ownership from a seller to a buyer. Quitclaim deed: A quitclaim deed is a legal instrument used to transfer any interest or claim the seller may have in the property to the buyer. It does not provide any guarantees or warranties regarding the property's title. General warranty deed: A general warranty deed is a type of deed that provides the highest level of protection for the buyer. It guarantees that the seller holds clear and marketable title to the property and provides certain warranties or assurances regarding the property's condition and ownership history.
Special warranty deed: A special warranty deed is a type of deed that provides limited warranties to the buyer. It guarantees that the seller has not caused any encumbrances or defects in the title during their ownership of the property but does not provide warranties for any issues that existed prior to the seller's ownership.
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The unique aspect of auditors' legal liability in the Rosenblum v. Adler ruling is: Multiple Choice A) Auditors could be held liable for ordinary negligence to all reasonably foreseeable third parties B) Auditors could be held liable for gross negligence to all reasonably foreseeable third parties C) Auditors could be held liable for fraud to all reasonably foreseeable third parties D) Auditors should be able to detect all deceit by management
Answers
The unique aspect of auditors' legal liability in the Rosenblum v. Adler ruling is that auditors could be held liable for ordinary negligence to all reasonably foreseeable third parties (Option A).
In the Rosenblum v. Adler ruling, the court established that auditors have a duty of care to all reasonably foreseeable third parties and can be held liable for ordinary negligence, which is a departure from the traditional standard of auditors' liability.
This means that if an auditor fails to exercise reasonable care in performing their duties, they can be held responsible for any resulting damages to third parties, even if the negligence does not reach the level of gross negligence or fraud. This ruling broadened the scope of auditors' legal liability and emphasized the importance of their role in providing reliable financial information to stakeholders.
Option A holds true.
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a particular firm produces bikes. this firm has a variable cost of $1,000 per worker. when the variable cost curve becomes vertical, it means that a firm can continue to hire labor but its production
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When the variable cost curve of a firm producing bikes becomes vertical, it indicates that the firm has reached its maximum capacity in terms of production with the current level of technology and resources.
A firm's variable cost includes the costs that vary with the level of output or production, such as the cost of labor, raw materials, and energy. As the firm produces more units of bikes, it needs to hire more workers to operate the machines and assemble the parts. However, there comes a point where the marginal product of labor, or the additional output produced by each additional worker, starts to decline due to diminishing returns to scale.
When the marginal product of labor falls, the marginal cost of each additional unit of output increases, and the variable cost curve starts to slope upwards. Eventually, the variable cost curve becomes vertical, indicating that the firm has exhausted all the available inputs and technologies to produce more bikes efficiently. In other words, the firm has reached its production capacity, and any further increase in labor input would result in a lower output per worker and a higher cost per unit of output.
At this point, the firm may still choose to hire more workers, but it would not be able to increase its total output or profit. In fact, it may even experience a negative profit margin if the additional costs of hiring more workers exceed the marginal revenue of producing more bikes. Therefore, the firm needs to balance the benefits of labor input and output level to achieve optimal production efficiency and profitability.
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which is one of the four major reasons markets fail? private ownership of resources competitive markets internalized costs and benefits asymmetric information
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One of the four major reasons markets fail is asymmetric information.
Asymmetric information refers to a situation in which one party in a transaction has more information than the other party. This imbalance of information can lead to market failures because it affects the decision-making process and can result in adverse outcomes. For example, in a market with asymmetric information, the seller may have more knowledge about the quality or risks associated with a product than the buyer. This can lead to issues such as adverse selection, moral hazard, or market failure due to the inability of the parties to make fully informed decisions. Therefore, asymmetric information is one of the key reasons why markets may fail to achieve efficient outcomes.
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While assigning resources to an activity, a work center is used to carry out which of the following tasks? (3 correct answers)
A. Produce work output
B. Perform scheduling
C. Enter services performed
D. Perform capacity planning
Answers
A work center is used to produce work output while assigning resources to an activity.
When resources are assigned to an activity, a work center is responsible for producing work output. This involves using the available resources, such as personnel and equipment, to perform the necessary tasks to complete the activity. The work center may also be responsible for determining the most efficient way to produce the work output, including making decisions about scheduling and capacity planning. However, scheduling and capacity planning are not tasks that a work center must perform while assigning resources to an activity. Therefore, options B and D are not correct answers. Additionally, entering services performed is not a task that is typically associated with a work center, so option C is also not a correct answer.
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what is a credit card balance quizlet everfi
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A credit card balance is the amount of money owed to the credit card issuer for purchases, fees, and interest charges made on the credit card.
This balance is the sum of all outstanding debts on the credit card account at any given time. The credit card balance is important to monitor because it can impact the cardholder's credit score, interest rates, and ability to make future purchases. Quizlet Everfi is an educational platform that provides digital resources for financial literacy education. It includes various modules on personal finance, including credit cards, budgeting, and investing.
In the credit card module, Quizlet Everfi teaches students how to manage credit card balances, make payments on time, and avoid accruing high-interest charges. The module also covers topics such as credit scores, credit limits, and credit card fees. In summary, a credit card balance is the outstanding debt owed to a credit card issuer for purchases, fees, and interest charges. Quizlet Everfi is an educational platform that provides resources for financial literacy education, including a module on credit cards.
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the key to the trespassing section pc 602 (n) as it relates to private property is: group of answer choices the person remains on the property after 30 days. the person refuses to leave after being asked by the owner/police. the person merely entered the property. that it takes two or more persons.
Answers
]The key to the trespassing section PC 602 (n) as it relates to private property is that the person refuses to leave after being asked by the owner or police.
PC 602 (n) refers to the California Penal Code section that addresses trespassing on private property. The key aspect of this section is the requirement that the person refuses to leave the property after being asked to do so by the owner or the police. This means that the act of merely entering the property without permission does not automatically constitute a violation of PC 602 (n). However, if the owner or police ask the person to leave and they refuse to comply, then it becomes a trespassing offense under this section.
The refusal to leave after being asked by the owner or police is a crucial element in establishing trespassing charges and pursuing legal action against the individual. It demonstrates the intentional disregard for the property owner's rights and their explicit request to vacate the premises. In summary, the key to the trespassing section PC 602 (n) as it relates to private property is the person's refusal to leave after being asked by the owner or police. This refusal is a critical factor in determining trespassing violations and initiating legal consequences.
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According to the FASB conceptual framework, an entity's revenue may result from?
a. A decrease in an asset from primary operations.
b. An increase in an asset from incidental transactions.
c. An increase in a liability from incidental transactions.
d. A decrease in a liability from primary operations.
Answers
Explanation:
According to the FASB conceptual framework, an entity's revenue may result from a decrease in a liability from primary operations.
Revenue is defined in the conceptual framework as inflows or other enhancements of assets of an entity or settlements of its liabilities (or a combination of both) from delivering or producing goods,
rendering services, or other activities that constitute the entity's ongoing major or central operations.
Therefore, revenue is recognized when a company transfers control of goods or services to a customer in exchange for consideration, which is usually in the form of cash or a promise to pay.
This transfer of control results in a decrease in a liability from primary operations, which is a key characteristic of revenue.
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89) Henry and Ana each own 50% interest in a business entity. Henry contributed $200,000 for her ownership interest and Ana contributed Land worth $200,000 (adjusted basis of $150,000) for her ownership interest. Several months after the formation of the entity, the land contributed by Ana is sold by the business entity for $220,000. if the business entity is a partnership, Ana share of the recognized gain from sale of the land by the partnership is $35,000
true or false
Answers
The given statement if the business entity is a partnership, Ana share of the recognized gain from sale of the land by the partnership is $35,000 is true.
In a partnership, the partners share the profits, losses, and gains of the partnership based on their ownership interests. In this case, both Henry and Ana own a 50% interest in the partnership.
The gain from the sale of the land contributed by Ana should be allocated based on their ownership interests. Since both partners have a 50% interest, Ana's share of the recognized gain would be 50% of the total gain, not $35,000.
To calculate Ana's share of the recognized gain, we can determine the difference between the selling price of the land ($220,000) and its adjusted basis ($150,000):
Recognized Gain = Selling Price - Adjusted Basis
Recognized Gain = $220,000 - $150,000
Recognized Gain = $70,000
Ana's share of the recognized gain would be 50% of the recognized gain:
Ana's Share of Recognized Gain = 50% * Recognized Gain
Ana's Share of Recognized Gain = 50% * $70,000
Ana's Share of Recognized Gain = $35,000
Therefore, the statement is true. Ana's share of the recognized gain from the sale of the land by the partnership is $35,000.
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Which of the following is a major reason for the development of the pay equity idea? a. The continuing gap between the earnings of women and men b. The increasing number of racial discrimination lawsuits c. The uneven representation of ethnic minorities in the workforce d. The increasing number of women in the workforce
Answers
Answer:
The major reason for the development of the pay equity idea is a.
Explanation:
The continuing gap between the earnings of women and men.
Pay equity advocates argue that women have historically been paid less than men for performing similar work, despite possessing the same qualifications and skills.
This disparity has been observed across various industries and job levels.
The focus on pay equity aims to address and rectify this gender-based wage gap, ensuring that women receive fair and equal compensation for their work.
By addressing this issue, pay equity initiatives strive to promote gender equality and reduce systemic discrimination in the workplace.
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the tools, factories, land, and investment capital used to produce wealth make up the
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The tools, factories, land, and investment capital used to produce wealth make up the factors of production. These are the resources that are combined to create goods and services, which are then sold in markets to generate income and profit.
The first factor of production is land, which refers to all natural resources used in production, such as minerals, forests, water, and land itself. The second factor is labor, which refers to the human effort used in production. The third factor is capital, which includes the physical tools and equipment, as well as the financial resources used to purchase them. Finally, the fourth factor is entrepreneurship, which involves the ability to organize and coordinate the other factors of production to create new products and services.
The efficient allocation and utilization of these factors of production are essential for economic growth and development. For example, investment in physical capital, such as new machinery or infrastructure, can increase productivity and output. Similarly, investment in human capital, such as education and training, can improve the skills and knowledge of the labor force, leading to higher wages and economic growth.
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Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? (Check all that apply.)
Duplicate data
Correct data
Accurate data
Non-formatted data
Violates business rules data
Nonintegrated data
Duplicate data
Non-formatted data
Violates business rules data
Nonintegrated data
Answers
Answer:
Correct data and accurate data are not problems associated with dirty data, but rather desirable qualities of good quality data.
Explanation:
The problems associated with dirty data are:
Duplicate data
Non-formatted data
Violates business rules data
Nonintegrated data
Correct data and accurate data are not problems associated with dirty data, but rather desirable qualities of good quality data.
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which of the following statements are true with respect to piaget's theory of schemas?
a. Schemas are expressed as various behaviors and skills.
b. A schema organizes information.
c. A schema assists us in making sense of experience.
Answers
All of the following statements are true with respect to Piaget's theory of schemas.
According to Piaget's theory, a schema is a cognitive framework or mental representation that helps individuals organize and interpret their experiences. It assists individuals in making sense of new information by allowing them to connect it to existing knowledge and understanding. Schemas are expressed as various behaviors and skills, such as grasping objects, babbling, and walking. Furthermore, a schema organizes information by providing a structure for categorizing and relating new information to existing knowledge. Thus, all of the statements provided in the question are true with respect to Piaget's theory of schemas.
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Which of the following is NOT one of the steps involved in constructing a SWOT Matrix?
A) List the firm's key external threats.
B) Match internal strengths with external opportunities, and record the resultant SO strategies in the appropriate cell.
C) Match internal strengths with external threats, and record the resultant ST strategies.
D) List the firm's external weaknesses.
E) List the firm's external opportunities
Answers
The option that is NOT one of the steps involved in constructing a SWOT Matrix is: List the firm's external weaknesses. The correct option is D.
In a SWOT Matrix, the focus is on identifying a firm's internal strength and weaknesses, as well as its external opportunities and threats. Steps like listing key external threats (A), matching internal strengths with external opportunities for SO strategies (B), and matching internal strengths with external threats for ST strategies (C) are all part of constructing a SWOT Matrix.
However, listing external weaknesses (D) is not relevant, as weaknesses are considered internal factors. External factors are classified as either opportunities (E) or threats. The correct option is D.
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Which statement accurately reflects the role of the product owner during the daily scrum?
Choose one or more of the following:
a.The Product Owner outlines the additional changes that must be absorbed by the Team in the Sprint.
b.The Product Owner ensures the Burn down rate is maintained at the estimated rate.
c.The Product Owner’s participation is defined by the team.
d.The Product Owner provides instruction to the Team on how to implement a workable solution.
Answers
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
Which statement is accurate about the role of the Product Owner during the Daily Scrum? The Product Owner's participation is defined by the Team.
A promissory note that requires the borrower to repay the loan in specified installments.
Choose matching term
Venture capital
Unsecured bond
Term-long agreement
Risk/return trade-off
Answers
A promissory note that requires the borrower to repay the loan in specified installments is known as a term-long agreement. So, the fourth option is corrcet answer.
A term-long agreement is a financial contract in which the borrower agrees to make periodic payments to the lender over a specified period of time. This type of agreement is commonly used for loans that have a fixed repayment schedule, such as mortgages or personal loans.
Venture capital is a type of financing provided by investors to start-ups and small businesses with high growth potential. This funding is usually provided in exchange for equity or ownership stake in the company. It is not directly related to a promissory note or term-long agreement, as it is an investment in the business rather than a loan.
An unsecured bond is a type of debt security that is not backed by collateral. It carries a higher risk for the bondholder, as the issuer may default on the repayment obligations. This is different from a term-long agreement, which is a specific type of loan agreement with a fixed repayment schedule.
The risk/return trade-off refers to the principle that potential return on an investment increases with the level of risk associated with it. Investors typically balance their portfolios to manage risk while seeking the highest possible returns. This concept is not directly related to a term-long agreement, which focuses on the repayment terms of a loan.
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The manage stage of the data life cycle is when a business decides what kind of data it needs, how the data will be handled, and who will be responsible for it. T/F
Answers
The statement is false because the manage stage of the data life cycle is not when a business decides what kind of data it needs, how the data will be handled, and who will be responsible for it.
In the manage stage, businesses maintain, secure, and ensure the quality of the data they already have. The process of deciding what kind of data is needed, how it will be handled, and who is responsible for it occurs during the earlier stages of the data life cycle, such as the plan and collect stages.
The manage stage focuses on efficiently storing, organizing, and securing the data to ensure its integrity, availability, and compliance with regulations.
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First-mover disadvantages (or late-mover advantages) rarely arise when a. rapid market evolution gives fast followers an opening to leapfrog the pioneer with next-generation products of their own. b. the market response is strong and the pioneer gains a monopoly position that enables it to recover its investment. c. the marketplace remains skeptical about the benefits of a new technology or product being pioneered by a first-mover.
d. the costs of pioneering are much higher than being a follower and only negligible learning/experience curve benefits accrue to the pioneer. e. the pioneer's products are somewhat primitive and do not live up to buyer expectations, allowing clever followers to win disenchanted buyers with better- performing products.
Answers
First-mover disadvantages refer to the challenges and drawbacks faced by companies that enter a market early with a new product or technology. However, there are situations where these disadvantages rarely arise:
a. Rapid market evolution giving fast followers an opening to leapfrog the pioneer with next-generation products of their own can minimize first-mover disadvantages. If the market is evolving quickly, it creates opportunities for followers to leverage advancements in technology, consumer preferences, or market dynamics to surpass the pioneer. By introducing more innovative and advanced products, fast followers can gain a competitive edge, eroding the advantages of the first-mover.
b. When the market response is strong and the pioneer gains a monopoly position, it can recover its investment and mitigate first-mover disadvantages. If the pioneer's product receives a positive market response and establishes a dominant position, it can benefit from economies of scale, brand recognition, and customer loyalty. This enables the pioneer to recoup its initial investment and enjoy long-term advantages, reducing the impact of first-mover disadvantages.
c. If the marketplace remains skeptical about the benefits of a new technology or product being pioneered, it can minimize first-mover disadvantages. Skepticism can lead to slow market adoption, giving the pioneer time to refine its product, address concerns, and educate the market about its benefits. As the market matures and skepticism diminishes, the pioneer can solidify its position and overcome initial challenges.
d. When the costs of pioneering are significantly higher than being a follower and negligible learning/experience curve benefits accrue to the pioneer, first-mover disadvantages can be rare. If the costs of developing and launching a new product are exorbitant, and the learning or experience curve benefits are minimal, followers may have a more favorable cost structure and can achieve similar outcomes without the risks and expenses faced by the pioneer.
e. If the pioneer's products are somewhat primitive and do not live up to buyer expectations, it creates an opportunity for clever followers to win disenchanted buyers with better-performing products. If the pioneer fails to meet customer needs or deliver on expectations, followers who enter the market later can learn from the pioneer's shortcomings and develop superior products. By addressing the gaps in the market, these followers can attract dissatisfied customers and gain a competitive advantage.
In summary, first-mover disadvantages are less likely to occur when rapid market evolution, strong market response, skepticism, high costs of pioneering with limited learning benefits, or underwhelming pioneer products are present. These factors can either level the playing field or provide advantages to late movers, allowing them to overcome the typical challenges faced by pioneers.
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2. 1 According to Beall (2011) There are generally three main purposes of using a speech to communicate with a specific audience. These purposes include the following aspects: to inform;
to persuade and to entertain.
Using inverted commas, quote different sections from your speech in Question 1, to use as examples to explain how you think your speech serves the function to:
2. 1. 1 Inform; and justify your answer (5)
2. 1. 2 Persuade; and justify your answer (5)
2. 1. 3 Entertain; and justify your answer (5)
The question 1 speech:
Honourable guests, ladies and gentlemen, good afternoon. Today, I have the privilege of discussing the Youth Employment Service (YES) Program, a cause close to my heart. I'm excited to discuss with you the development in terms of young job and training options so far in this program, which seeks to solve the issue of youth unemployment in our nation. The President of South Africa introduced the YES Program in 2018, with the intention of generating one million job opportunities for young people over the course of three years. The YES Program's main objective is to give young people real-world work experience so they may develop the skills necessary for the workplace.
Since this initiative is a public-private collaboration, both the public and private sectors must work together and support it. The YES Program has significantly improved the employment and training prospects for youth since its inception. Recent statistics show that the program has given young people approximately 83,000 job chances. This is a fantastic accomplishment that demonstrates the program's efficacy. Additionally, the YES Program has improved the lives of the young people who have taken part in it. Young people have been able to get important work experience through the program, increasing their employability.
Their confidence and self-esteem have increased as a result of being able to enhance their skills and abilities. Businesses that have taken part in the initiative have benefited from it as well. Businesses have had access to a pool of smart and driven young people through the program who are ready to learn and contribute to the growth of their enterprises. In conclusion, the YES Program is a crucial initiative that is significantly tackling the problem of youth unemployment in our nation. The program has given young people thousands of job chances and helped them acquire the knowledge and experience required in the workplace. I urge all of us to support this program and to continue to work towards empowering our youth. Thank you
Answers
"Today, I have the privilege of discussing the Youth Employment Service (YES) Program, a cause close to my heart.
I'm excited to discuss with you the development in terms of young job and training options so far in this program, which seeks to solve the issue of youth unemployment in our nation."
This excerpt from the speech informs the audience about the topic that will be discussed, which is the Youth Employment Service Program. It also provides the purpose of the program, which is to solve the issue of youth unemployment in the nation. The speaker uses statistics to inform the audience about the program's accomplishments so far, demonstrating its efficacy in generating job opportunities for young people.
2.1.2 Persuade:
"Since this initiative is a public-private collaboration, both the public and private sectors must work together and support it. The YES Program has significantly improved the employment and training prospects for youth since its inception... In conclusion, the YES Program is a crucial initiative that is significantly tackling the problem of youth unemployment in our nation. The program has given young people thousands of job chances and helped them acquire the knowledge and experience required in the workplace. I urge all of us to support this program and to continue to work towards empowering our youth."
The speaker is persuading the audience to support the Youth Employment Service Program. The speaker uses the phrase "both the public and private sectors must work together and support it" to appeal to the sense of responsibility that both sectors have in solving the issue of youth unemployment. The speaker also uses statistics to demonstrate the program's efficacy and its positive impact on the lives of young people. By urging the audience to support the program, the speaker is persuading them to take action towards empowering the youth.
2.1.3 Entertain:
There are no examples of entertainment in the speech as it is a formal speech about a serious topic. The speaker's goal is to inform and persuade the audience, rather than entertain them. However, the speaker could use rhetorical devices, such as anecdotes or humor, to make the speech more engaging and interesting for the audience.
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Use the following information to answer parts a through h. Describe what the results of each calculation mean to you as a project manager. What do you propose to do?
PV = $25,000
EV = $30,000
AC = $29,000
BAC = $1,000,000
a. Schedule variance (SV)
b. Cost variance (CV)
c. Schedule performance index (SPI)
d. Cost performance index (CPI)
e. Estimate to complete (ETC—first method)
f. Estimate to complete (ETC—second method)
g. Estimate at completion (EAC)
h. To-complete performance index (TCPI)
Answers
It is essential to have a clear understanding of the project's financial health. Two critical financial metrics that help evaluate a project's performance are Estimate at Completion (EAC) and To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI).
EAC is a projection of the expected total cost of completing the project. It takes into account the actual costs incurred to date, as well as the remaining budget and the estimate for the work remaining. As a project manager, EAC gives an indication of the expected cost of the project, which can be used to assess whether the project is on track financially or not.
On the other hand, TCPI is an estimate of the performance required to meet the project's financial goals. TCPI is the ratio of the remaining work to the remaining budget. It tells project managers how efficiently they need to manage the remaining work to achieve their target costs. As a project manager, TCPI provides an indication of the financial efficiency required to complete the project within the budget.
If EAC is higher than the original budget, it indicates that the project is over budget, and corrective measures need to be taken. If EAC is lower than the original budget, it means that the project is under budget, and the savings can be used to reinvest in the project.
If the TCPI is less than one, it indicates that the project needs to perform more efficiently to meet the financial goals. If TCPI is greater than one, it means that the project is performing better than expected financially.
As a project manager, if EAC is higher than the original budget and TCPI is less than one, corrective measures need to be taken to improve financial efficiency. In contrast, if EAC is lower than the original budget and TCPI is greater than one, the savings can be used to invest in the project to further improve its performance.
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raul works every day from 10:00am to 2:00pm. he works an additional four hours every day when it is convenient. this is an example of: a. part-time work. b. job sharing. c. telecommuting.
Answers
Raul's work schedule, where he works every day from 10:00 am to 2:00 pm and then an additional four hours when it is convenient, is an example of (a) part-time work.
Part-time work refers to employment where individuals work fewer hours than those considered full-time by the organization. In Raul's case, he works for a fixed period of time from 10:00 am to 2:00 pm, which amounts to four hours. This aligns with the definition of part-time work.
Job sharing, on the other hand, involves two or more employees sharing the responsibilities and hours of a single full-time position. Telecommuting refers to working remotely or from a location other than the traditional office.
Given the information provided, Raul's work arrangement does not fit the definitions of job sharing or telecommuting but rather aligns with the concept of part-time work.
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